NRS I (4A0-100) - Perguntas com respostas

 

Questions

1. Which of the following statements is FALSE when describing a Virtual Private LAN Service?

A. VPLS emulates a virtual switch or bridge.

B. The VPLS performs MAC learning on MAC addresses seen from SAPs and SDPs.

C. When a VPLS receives a frame with an unknown MAC destination, the frame will be

dropped.         

D. MAC addresses are maintained in a MAC address forwarding database (FDB).

 

2. If a customer requires a multipoint layer 2 VPN service between three or more locations
which VPN service is best suited for this customer?

A. Virtual Private Dark Fibre Service

B. Virtual Private Wire Service

C. Virtual Private LAN Service

D. Virtual Private Routed Networks

 

3. What does a VPLS solution look like from a customers perspective?

A. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single router.

D. To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a series of private
point-to-point connections.

 

4. Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?

A. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label
identifies which transport tunnel to use.

B. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label

identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

C. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label
identifies which transport tunnel to use.

D. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label
identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

 

5. What is the network layer responsible for?

A. Formatting the PDU.

B. Providing the physical address to the packet.

C. Determining the path to the remote host.

D. Providing reliable communications from host to host.

 

6. Which of the following are basic router functions? (Choose two).

A. Determine the best path to the destination.

B. IP header examination.

C. Perform a Layer 2 header lookup

D. Broadcast a Layer 2 packet to all the interfaces.

 

7. Which ATM adaptation layer is usually used for transporting IP datagrams?

A. AAL1

B. AAL2

C. AAL3

D. AAL 5

 

8. Which of the following are data rates defined for Ethernet operation over copper and fiber
optic cabling? (Choose three.)

A. 1 Mbps

B. 10 Mbps

C. 1000 Mbps

D. 10,000 Mbps

 

9. An Ethernet switch receives a frame addressed to an unknown destination. Assuming the
frame is error-free, what will the switch do with the frame?

A. Age out the source address forwarding table entry

B. Filter the frame and restrict it only to the source port

C. Flood the frame out all ports except the source port

D. Hold it in a buffer until it learns the port on which the destination is located

 

10. How does collision detection operate in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

A. It allows multiple hosts to share the same medium by ensuring that only one host can

transmit at a time

B. Detects collisions on a full-duplex link

C. A host will only transmit upon receipt of the token

D. It allows multiple hosts to exchange data simultaneously on the same medium

 

11. The Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer is responsible for which two functions? (Choose
two.)

A. Link integrity testing

B. Physical addressing

C. Directly interface with the transport layer

D. Data transmission synchronization

 

12. What is the purpose of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

A. The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry

B. To ensure the host is able to detect an operational physical link before transmitting.

C. The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the
host is connected

D. The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting

 

13. Which statement best describes a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) root bridge/switch?

A. It is the only switch on the network through which traffic flows

B. It is responsible for removing duplicate frames from the network

C. It is the switch on the network with the lowest bridge priority value

D. It is the switch with the highest numeric Media Access Control (MAC) address

 

14. An Ethernet switch with redundant links has the following entries in its Forwarding Data
Base (FDB): MAC Address Port ——————- ——– 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 1
00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 2 It receives on port 2 a frame with the source Media Access Control

(MAC) address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11, and destination address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87. What will
the switch change in its FDB?

A. It will remove the previous entry for MAC 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 and replace it with a new
one mapping this address to port 1

B. It will set a timer on the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 and create a new
entry mapping this address to port 2

C. Replace the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 with a new one mapping this
address to port 2

D. It will create a new entry for MAC address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 mapping this address to
port 2 and a new entry for MAC address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 mapping this address to port 1

 

15. An 12-port Ethernet switch running the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) can have how many
root ports?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 12

 

16. When a Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) switch receives a topology change Bridge
Protocol Data Unit (BPDU), how does it propagate this information through the network?

A. It processes the topology change but does not propagate the BPDU

B. It forwards it only through its root port

C. It forwards it hop-by-hop through the network

D. It floods it throughout the network

E. It sends it directly to the root switch

 

17. An Ethernet switch is configured to support 4 Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). They
are configured as follows: VLAN Port ——- —— 101 1 101 2 102 3 102 4 103 5 103 6 104 7
104 8 The switch receives a broadcast frame on port 7. Which VLAN members will receive
this broadcast frame?

 

A. 104

B. 103 and 104

C. 101, 102, 103, and 104

D. None

 

18. Which two 7750SR Service Router physical access methods are used to perform Out of
Band (OOB) management? (Choose two.)

A. Console port

B. Network ports

C. Management Ethernet port

D. Access ports

 

19. Changing which part of the 7750SR basic configuration also changes the command
prompt?

A. Default admin password

B. System name

C. Hostname

D. Admin user name

 

20. Which of the following is an example of a valid host address?

A. 172.16.224.255/18

B. 192.168.24.59/30  (fazendo as contas 2^2=4 hosts possíveis, fazemos de 0 a 3(4 hosts),4-7,8-11até59..broadcst, não pode)

C. 224.1.2.1     (endereço multicast não pode ser)

D. 255.255.255.255  (endereço broadcast tambem nao pode ser)

 

20. Given the following: Network address: 190.160.0.0 Network prefix: /19 What are the network
and broadcast addresses for the third subnetwork? (Choose two.)

A. 190.160.64.0

B. 190.160.64.255

C. 190.160.95.255

D. 190.160.96.0

 

21. Given the following: Network address: 190.160.0.0 Network prefix: /19 What are the network
and broadcast addresses for the third subnetwork? (Choose two.)

A. 190.160.64.0

B. 190.160.64.255

C. 190.160.95.255

D. 190.160.96.0

 

 

22. Why don’t classful routing protocols use the first and last subnetworks?

A. classful routing protocols only recognize Class C addresses

B. classful routing protocols do not pass routing information to their neighbors

C. classful routing protocols don’t work with binary numbers

D. classful routing protocols confuse the base network and the all 0 subnet

 

 

23. Given a network address of 116.14.0.0, which of the following is a valid host address when
using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240?

A. 116.14.17.16

B. 116.14.17.31

C. 116.14.17.192

D. 116.14.17.189

 

24. You have a class B network with a 255.255.255.0 mask. Which of the following are true of
this network? (Select two)

A. There are 256 usable subnets

B. There is one usable subnet

C. There are 254 usable host addresses for each subnet

D. There are 50 usable subnets

 

25. Given the following: Network address: 208.40.224.0 Network prefix: /28 What is the address
range, including the network (all 0) and broadcast (all 1) addresses, for the fourth
subnetwork?

A. 208.40.224.0 ?208.40.224.255

B. 208.40.4.0 ?208.40.4.255

C. 208.40.224.16 ?208.40.224.31

D. 208.40.224.48  ? 208.40.224.63

 

26. You want to integrate a new network into an existing IP Wide Area Network. The current
network configuration is as follows: Network address: 208.40.224.0 Network prefix: /27
Number of subnetworks: 6 If Variable Length Subnet Masking (VLSM) is used, what prefix is
required to support an additional 7-host LAN segment?

A. /24

B. /27

C. /28

D. /29

E. /30

 

27. Represent the following address in Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) notation: Network
address: 150.220.64.0 Network mask: 255.255.192.0.

A. 150.220.64.0/18  (resolver 192 para binario verifica-se que é /18,pois e’ 3º octeto)de 64 em 64…

B. 150.220.0.0/18

C. 150.220.0.0/17

D. 150.220.64.0/16

 

28. You have been assigned the CIDR block of 116.65.4.0/22. Which of the following IP
addresses could you use as a host? (Choose all that apply)

A. 116.65.7.64 

B. 116.65.6.255

C. 116.65.3.255

D. 116.65.8.32

 

29. Your network administrator has subnetted your Class C address 198.17.54.0 into 14
useable subnetworks. One network segment requires support for 30 hosts. Using
supernetting techniques, which subnetwork could you assign to the 30-host segment?

A. 198.17.54.0/28

B. 198.17.54.48/27

C. 198.17.54.80/26

D. 198.17.54.96/27  

 

30. Represent the following list of addresses as the most accurate aggregate route:
60.48.0.0/24 60.48.1.0/24 60.48.2.0/24 60.48.3.0/24 60.48.4.0/24 60.48.5.0/24 60.48.6.0/24
60.48.7.0/24

A. 60.48.0.0/17

B. 60.48.0.0/21

C. 60.48.0.0/16

D. 60.48.0.0/24

 

31. Two networks, Network A and Network B, are connected through four routed paths. The
paths are configured as follows: Path 1: Network A connects to Network B through three
routers over a series of T1 (1.544Mbps) point-topoint links Path 2: Network A connects to

Network B through four routers over a series of 10Mbps Ethernet links Path 3: Network A
connects to Network B through three routers over a series of ISDN-BRI (128Kbps) links
Path 4: Network A connects to Network B through two routers over a series dial-up
(56Kbps) links If the routers run Routing Information Protocol (RIP) version 1, have no static
routes configured, and all the paths described above are available, which path will the
Network A and B routers choose first?

A. Path 2

B. Path 3

C. Path 1

D. Path 4

 

32. A link state protocol uses what metric type to choose the best path to a destination network?

A. Cost

B. Delay

C. Hop count

D. Precedence

 

33. How would you best describe route poisoning in a Distance Vector routing protocol?

A. Upon detecting a network failure, a router sourcing the network update will set the hop
value in the update to infinity and send a triggered update to its neighbors

B. Upon detecting a network failure, a router receiving an update about that neighbor will
drop the update

C. Upon detecting a network failure, a router receiving an update about that neighbor will
not flood it back to the source router that sent it the update

D. Upon detecting a network failure a router sourcing the network update will set the hop
value in the update to 0 and send a triggered update to its neighbors

 

34. What are the maximum number of networks advertised in a RIPv1 Update?

A. 25

B. 30

C. 255

D. 520

 

35. List the correct sequence of operations when a router receives a Ethernet Frame from a
LAN.

A. Check type field, extract IP datagram

B. Extract IP data frame

C. Read destination MAC, check FCS, check type field, extract IP datagram

D. Read destination MAC, extract IP datagram

 

36. Which two characteristics make RIPv2 preferable for use over RIPv1? (Choose two.)

A. RIPv2 supports Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM)

B. RIPv2 uses a link state algorithm (LSA) to calculate link cost

C. RIPv2 uses a bandwidth metric to choose the preferred route

D. RIPv2 authenticates routing updates

E. RIPv2 uses Route Poisoning to prevent routing loops

 

37. You decide that you want traffic destined for any unknown network to always exit the router
over a specific interface. What type of route will you configure on the router?

A. Black-hole route

B. Default route

C. Dynamic route

D. Alternate route

 

38. What network type does not require DR/BDR elections for OSPF routers to form an
adjacency with one another.

A. Non-Broadcast Multi-access

B. Point-to-Multipoint

C. Point-to-Point

D. Broadcast

E. Unicast

 

39. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR’s OSPF implementation supports which two packet exchange
authentication techniques? (Choose two.)

A. Message Digest 5 (MD5)

B. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

C. Plain text

D. Rivest, Shamir, Adleman (RSA)

 

40. List the true statements with regards to the OSPF Hello protocol. (Choose two)

A. OSPF Hello protocol provides dynamic neighbor discovery

B. OSPF Hello protocol Hello timers do not need to match between neighbors

C. OSPF Hello protocol is used as a keep-alive to maintain neighbor adjacency

D. OSPF Hello protocol is used to negotiate parameters to maintain neighbor relationships

E. OSPF Hello protocol is used to exchange routing updates

 

41. In what OSPF area type will one see Type 7 LSAs.

A. Backbone Area

B. Normal Area

C. Stub Area

D. Not So Stubby Area (NSSA)

 

42. OSPF Router A has interfaces in Area 0, Area 1, and Area 3. OSPF Router B has interfaces
in Area 0 and Area 4. OSPF Router C has interfaces in Area 0 and Area 5. For which OSPF
areas will Router A maintain a link state database? (Choose all that apply)

A. OSPF Area 1

B. OSPF Area 3

C. OSPF Area 4

D. OSPF Area 5

E. OSPF Area 0

 

43. What of the following statements are true? (Choose two)

A. OSPF Area 0 is a Normal area

B. Routers in a Normal area cannot propagate External LSAs.

C. Routers in a Normal OSPF area will not have External LSAs in their LSA databases

D. A router inside a Normal OSPF area may have Router, Network, and External LSAs in its
LSA database

 

44. What LSA types will be advertised by an ASBR router for external routes?

A. LSA Type 1

B. LSA Type 4

C. LSA Type 3

D. LSA Type 5

 

45. Which OSPF LSA type is used to summarize networks from one area to another?

A. LSA Type 1

B. LSA Type 4

C. LSA Type 3

D. LSA Type 2

 

46. A router (called Router A) belongs to OSPF Area 0 and OSPF Area 2. Area 2 is a Normal
Area. There is an Autonomous System Boundary Router within Area 2. From the list below,
select valid LSA types that Router A will advertise into Area 0. (Choose 3)

A. LSA Type 0

B. LSA Type 3

C. LSA Type 4

D. LSA Type 5

E. LSA Type 7

 

47. What is the range for BGP Private AS numbers?

A. 0-2400

B. 0-64511

C. 64512-65535

D. 65000-65535.

 

48. Which of the following best defines an Autonomous System, as discussed within the context
of BGP?

A. An Autonomous System is a group of networks and network equipment under one
administrative authority.

B. Autonomous Systems are used by a single administrative authority to separate routing
domains that utilize different routing protocols.

C. An Autonomous System is a group of OSPF routers under one administrative authority

D. An Autonomous System is a group of networks connected together through BGP.

 

49. Choose two of the following reasons to implement BGP in your organization? (Choose two)

A. Your Organization is a transit to clients in different Autonomous systems.

B. Your Organization has a single connection to the Internet.

C. Your Organization has legacy routers and cannot sustain Internet traffic

D. Your organization needs to monitor and control traffic passing through it.

 

50. How does BGP set-up an internal BGP peering session?

A. BGP requires an IGP to discover a route to the internal BGP speaker and then uses
E-BGP to establish a peering session.

B. BGP requires an EGP to discover a route to the internal BGP speaker and then uses
I-BGP to establish a peering session.

C.
BGP uses I-BGP to discover a route to the internal BGP speaker and then establishes a
peering session.

D. BGP requires an IGP to discover a route to the internal BGP speaker and then is able to
establish an I-BGP peering session.

 

51. Which of the following best describes a Label Switched Path?

A. A bi-directional path that uses label switching technology to forward traffic to its
destination.

B. A bi-directional path that uses labels to represent the router route-table to forward traffic
to its destination.

C. A uni-directional path that uses label switching technology to forward traffic to its
destination.

D. A uni-directional path that uses labels to represent the router route-table to forward traffic

 

52.  A VLL allows for point-to-multipoint connections.

A. False

B. True

 

53. You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line
Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT
context. Which control command allows you to do this quickly?

A. Ctrl-c

B. Esc

C. Shift-Page Down

D. Ctrl-z

 

54. Which of the following best describes a repeater?

A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or
amplify any signals.

B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2
analysis of the data.

C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a
decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a
decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

E. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a
decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

 

 

 

 

55. How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers
or traffic types on the same physical wire?

A.
ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create
logical separation of traffic.

B.
ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different
customers or traffic type on the same physical wire.

C.
ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN’s to create logical
separation of traffic.

D.
ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to
create logical separation of traffic.

 

56. Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?

A. Provides an universal addressing scheme

B. Provides a physical interface to the network.

C. Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.

D. Provides reliable data transfers.

 

57. The 201.148.260/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host
addresses will you obtain with this mask?

A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts

B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts

C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts

D. 64 subnets, 2 hosts

E. 6 subnets, 30 hosts

 

58. What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?

A. Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.

B. A list of other DHCP clients.

C. IP addresses and their lease times.

D. Server time information

 

59. Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

A. Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

B. Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C. Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

D. Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

 

60. Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?

A. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application
services.

B. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application
services

C. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.

D. The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such
as JPEG or HTML.

 

61. Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?

A. Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control
traffic. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.

B. Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024
to 65535 and are assigned by IANA.

C. Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers
range from 1 to 1023 and are assigned by IANA.

D. Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are
assigned by IANA and can have any value.

 

62. Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?

A. NASA

B. Bell Labs

C. US Military.

D. IBM.

E. Alcatel-Lucent

 

63. Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?

A. The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse
networks, making an international network of networks.

B. ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing
computer on the University of Hawaii campus.

C. ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.

D. ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford,
UC Santa Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).

 

64. Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by
pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:

A. Secure transmission of information.

B. Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.

C. Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.

D. Allowing remote logins.

 

65. Which network was created to replace ARPANET?

A. INWG

B. ALOHANET

C. IETF

D. NSFNET

 

66. Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?

A. The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000 when the world wide web was conceived.

B. Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to
evolve into research and education based networks.

C. The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.

D. The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980s following the US militarys
adoption of TCP/IP in 1983

 

67. Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?

A. IETF

B. NSFNET

C. ITU-T

D. APNIC

E. IEEE

 

68. What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers

A. A large corporation.

B. A content provider.

C. An ISP.

D. A home based business.

 

69. The IANA is responsible for:

A. Allocating North American IP addresses .

B. Intra-city ISP traffic.

C. Allocation of the global IP address space.

D. Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic.

 

70. Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)

A. Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

B. Increases protocol operational efficiencies.

C. Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.

D. Controls distribution of IP addresses.

E. Simplifies protocol functionality.

 

71. To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer

A. Application Layer.

B. Transport Layer.

C. IP Layer.

D. Data Link Layer

 

72. Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)

A. Ethernet

B. OSPF

C. BGP

D. X.500

E. IS-IS

 

73. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the development of the OSI Reference
Model?

A. OSI model is maintained exclusively by the IETF.

B. OSI model is much simpler than TCP/IP.

C. OSI was developed as an alternative, open standard to IBMs SNA model.

D. OSI protocols were no longer used after TCP/IP was developed.

 

74. The TCP/IP and OSI models of protocol are similar in that they both have :

A. An application and session layer.

B. A network layer that provides a universal and consistent forwarding service.

C. A transport layer with two protocols.

D. An applications services layer with similar layering and service definitions.

 

75. How many of the front access card slots of the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR-12 router are
dedicated for redundant common equipment?

A. 2

B. 7

C. 1

D. 10

 

76. Which of the following is not supported on the Alcatel-Lucent 7450 ESS?

A. Support for IS-IS

B. Support for IPv6

C. Support for POS.

D. Upgrade path to the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR

 

77. The TiMOS-m.n.Y.Z software image file is software that:

A. Loads the router software image.

B. Transfers the router configuration from the router to the network management system.

C. Contains all the components required to configure and run protocols on the
Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS.

D. Loads the router configuration

 

78. When entering a command on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR from the Command Line
Interface (CLI), what would you use to list all the options for the command?

A. ?

B. tab character

C. space character

D. info

 

79. Which of the following describes the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR Input/Output Module (IOM)?

A. Small optical module available in a variety of formats.

B. Contains a CPU for managing the forwarding hardware in each flexible fast path.

C. Converts traffic from an external standard format to an internal format.

D. Contains the CPU that runs the routing protocol software as well as the switch fabric

 

80. A typical Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR Media Dependent Adapter (MDA) interfaces with:

A. The Control Plane.

B. The Switch Fabric.

C. The Central Processing Unit (CPU).

D. A Small Form-Factor Pluggable (SFP) module.

 

81. Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter
(MDA)?

A. Excess data is discarded by the MDA and the remaining data forwarded for QoS
processing.

B. The MDA buffers data and applies Quality of Service (QoS) to classify and treat the data
appropriately.

C. The MDA converts data from its incoming physical format into an internal format and
provides some minimal buffering.

D. The MDA contains the flexible fast path complex used for forwarding data.

 

82. What is NOT a function of the IOM?

A. It discards excess data packets.

B. It converts the incoming data to an internal format.

C. It forwards the data to the switch fabric.

D. It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data.

 

83. Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 router stores
the runtime image and running configuration?

A. CF 1

B. CF 2

C. CF 3

D. Both A and B

 

84. One of the tasks of the boot options file (BOF) is to:

A. Define an IP address for the CPM Ethernet port.

B. Initialize the hardware.

C. Specify authorization information to control access to the router.

D. Set the date/time for the system.

 

85. Which of the following user interface sessions are accessible through Telnet and Secure
Shell (SSH) on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR and 7450 ESS?

A. Graphic User Interface (GUI).

B. Node Management Terminal Interface (NMTI).

C. Command Line Interface (CLI).

D. All of the above

 

86. You are working from a particular Command Line Interface (CLI) context, and want to see
the commands available from your current context. What command can you issue to view
this information?

A. tree

B. info detail

C. view tree

D. info

 

87. What is available for auto completion of commands within the CLI on the Alcatel-Lucent
7750 SR Service Router?

A. Type the first letters of the command, then type ?

B. Type the first letters of the command, then press Ctrl C

C. Type the first letters of the command, then press Esc

D. Type the first letters of the command, then press Tab

 

88. Which of the following is a File command in the File System context of the Command Line
Interface (CLI)?

A. terminal

B. type

C. time-display

D. help

 

89. What must occur for a LAG to become operational?

A. There must be multiple ports assigned to the LAG.

B. All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same characteristics.

C. Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.

D. All of the above

 

90.  If a 4-port LAG is configured with the option of ‘port-threshold 2’ and ‘action down’ what will
happen if the total operational links in the LAG is 2?

A.
If dynamic-cost is not enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF
by dividing the link bandwidth by 2

B.
The LAG will be changed to an operational state of ‘down’.

C.
If dynamic-cost is enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF.

D.
The LAG will function with only 2 ports. There will be no change to the routing metric.

 

91. Click the Exhibit Button below An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the
components shown in the diagram below: How many broadcast and collision domains are
on this LAN?

A. 1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains.

B. 9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

C. 3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

D. 3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains.

 

92. As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and
Host B begin transmitting data at the same time?

A. A back-off timer is started by Host A or B.

B. Host A or B will retry the transmission.

C. Host A and B will generate a jam signal.   

D. Listening hosts will request retransmission.

 

93. (Click the Exhibit Button below) An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the
following components: Four 24-port hubs & Two 16-port switches How many broadcast
domains are on this LAN?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 32

 

94. Which of the following best describes an Ethernet bridge?

A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or
amplify any signals.

B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its other ports, but does not do any
Layer 2 analysis of the data.

C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a
decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a
decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

 

95. What happens immediately after an Ethernet switch receives an Ethernet frame?

A. It records the destination MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

B. It transmits the frame out of the appropriate interface.

C. It floods the frame out of all its interfaces except the interface on which the frame arrived.

D. It records the source MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

 

96. What is the behaviour of a typical Ethernet switch when it receives a frame with a unicast
destination MAC address? (Choose two)

A. The switch floods the frame out of all ports except the port on which it was received.

B. The switch looks in its FDB. If the source address is unknown it discards the frame.

C. The switch looks in its FDB. If the destination address is known it forwards the frame out
the appropriate interface.

D. The switch looks in its FDB. If the destination address is unknown it floods the frame out
all ports except the port on which it was received.

E. The switch looks in its FDB. If the destination address is unknown it discards the frame.

 

97. Which technologies can be used with Ethernet switches to achieve redundancy? (Choose
two)

A. LAG

B. OSPF

C. RIP

D. STP

 

98. In what type of network is a broadcast storm likely to occur?

A. A SONET network.

B. All of the above.

C. An ATM network.

D. An Ethernet network with redundant paths not running STP.

 

99. What problems was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve? (Choose
two):

A. Preventing loops.

B. Handling collisions.

C. Allowing flooding of multicast traffic.

D. Providing path redundancy.

 

 

100. Which of the following is a feature of a VLAN?

A. A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single collision domain.

B. A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different broadcast domains.

C. A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single broadcast domain.

D. A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different collision domains

 

101. What is required if devices on different VLANs wish to communicate with each other?

A. Devices on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.

B. Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as they are
connected to the same switch.

C. Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as the switches
they are attached to are connected to each other with an Ethernet connection.

D. Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if there is an IP router to
connect the VLANs.

 

102. A 24 port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100 on ports 1 – 8, VLAN 200 on ports 9 –
16 and VLAN 300 on ports 17 – 24. Which of the following describes the behavior of the
switch when a broadcast frame is received on port 1?

A. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all ports on which the switch has seen
frames from attached devices

B. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on ports 2 to 8

C. The switch will discard the broadcast frame because there is no specific destination
address.

D. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all 24 ports.

 

103. The method by which Ethernet frames are associated to a specific VLAN is referred to as:

A. Segmenting.

B. Stacking.

C. Routing.

D. Tagging

104. What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple
VLANs?

A. IP Header.

B. FCS.

C. VLAN tag.

D. Priority Value

 

105. Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate
one customers traffic from that of another?

A. The PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customers traffic.

B. The provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customers
Layer 2 data.

C. The PE switch replaces the customers VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag.

D. The PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customers traffic on the carriers

network.

 

106. What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

A. The Data Link Layer is responsible for timing of the signals on the transmission media

B. The Data Link Layer is responsible for formatting the packet for applications such as
JPEG format.

C. The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for
transmission on the transmission media.

D. The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into an IP header and
routing the packet

 

107. Which of the following is typically a characteristic of Layer 2 framing?

A. Provides a universal addressing scheme to uniquely identify destinations in the network.

B. The size of the Layer 2 frame cannot exceed 1518 bytes.

C. Provides error checking of the frame contents after transmission.

D. All the above

 

108. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Layer 2 protocol?

A. POS

B. IP

C. ATM

D. Frame Relay

E. Ethernet

 

109. Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to “11111111”?

A. PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field is fixed.

B. PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field can change dynamically

since every station is assigned a PPP address.

C. PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1’s acts as a
multicast.

D. PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1’s acts as a
broadcast.

 

110. Which ATM adaptation layer is commonly used for transporting IP datagrams or non-real
time data?

A. AAL1

B. AAL2

C. AAL3/4

D. AAL5

E. AAL0

 

111. Which of the following is a characteristic of ATM?

A. Application data is transported in 53-byte cells.

B. ATM circuits are identified by a VPI/VCI value.

C. Provides enhanced QoS support with 5 classes of service.

D. Ideal for multiple services on the same physical line.

E. All of the above.

F. None of the above

 

112. What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission?

A. STS-1 with a bit rate of 5184 Mbit/s

B. STS-1 with a bit rate of 15552 Mbit/s

C. STS-1 with a bit rate of 2048 Mbit/s

D. STS-1 with a bit rate of 1544 Mbit/s

 

113. What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

A. STM-1 with a bit rate of 2048 Mbit/s

B. STM-1 with a bit rate of 5184 Mbit/s

C. STM-1 with a bit rate of 15552 Mbit/s

D. STM-1 with a bit rate of 1544 Mbit/s

 

114. Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two)?

A. SONET/SDH.

B. E1 carrier.

C. Token-Ring.

D. Ethernet.

E. PPP

 

115. How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

116. Who was responsible for developing and publishing the original standard that was used for
10 Mbit/s Ethernet?

A. Intel Corporation.

B. IBM.

C. Apple Computer.

D. Digital Equipment Corporation.

E. DEC-Intel-Xerox

 

117. Which Ethernet frame field does the receiver use to verify the integrity of the received bits?

A. Destination address.

B. Frame check sequence.

C. Preamble.

D. Length field

 

118. How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 8023?

A. In Ethernet II the 2 bytes after the source MAC address is used as a type indicator. In
Ethernet 8023 these two bytes indicate the length of the frame.

B. In Ethernet 8023, the 2 bytes after the source MAC address is used as a type indicator.
In Ethernet II these two bytes indicate the length of the frame.

C. Ethernet 8023 can only be used on point-to-point links, while Ethernet II can be used on
broadcast networks.

D. Ethernet II and Ethernet 8023 are two different names for the same protocol

 

 

 

119. Given the Mac Address 00-20-60-ce-2b:28, which part is the Organizationally Unique
Identifier (OUI)?

A. 00-20-60

B. 2b:28

C. 00-20

D. ce-2b:28

 

120. Which of the following type of addressing scheme delivers information from one source to
all devices who are members of a specific group?

A. Unicast.

B. Broadcast.

C. Anycast.

D. Multicast.

 

121. Which of the following is true of Ethernet half-duplex transmission?

A. Half-duplex transmission is less efficient because the frame MTU is smaller.

B. Half-duplex transmission is only 30-40% efficient because of collisions.

C. Ethernet switches support half-duplex transmission only.

D. All of the above

 

122. What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

A. The host will only transmit when it receives the token.

B. The host will retransmit the frame if it detects a collision during transmission.

C. The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the
host is connected.

D. The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting.

E. The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry

 

123. What is the effective maximum rate of data transmission on a 10 Mbps full-duplex Ethernet
link?

A. 20 Mbps.

B. 15 Mbps.

C. 10 Mbps.

D. 5 Mbps.

 

124. Which of the following Ethernet rates requires an optical cable to operate?

A. 10 Mb/s Ethernet.

B. 100 Mb/s Ethernet.

C. 1000 Mb/s Ethernet .

D. There are copper and optical versions possible for all of these Ethernet data rates

 

125. What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?

A. 500 m.

B.
1 Km.

C.
100 m.

D.
10 Km

 

126. Which of the following statements is TRUE of Layer 3 addressing?

A. Internet devices on the same network can have the same Layer 3 address in different broadcast domains.

B. Every Host device must have a unique Layer 3 address in order to access the Internet.

C. Internet devices need unique Layer 3 addresses to communicate directly with upper layers.

D. A router must have only one address to allow it to be uniquely identified.

 

127. Which of the following is a characteristic of the IP layer?

A. Provides services equivalent to the OSI data link layer.

B. Verifies the integrity of all received datagrams.

C. Provides an unreliable, connectionless data transmission service.

D. Provides a mechanism for flow control.

 

128. The physical networks connecting two PCs to the internet are DSL and PPP respectively.
Which layer will enable the two PCs to communicate?

A. Layer 1

B. Layer 2

C.Layer 3

D. Layer 4

 

129. Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?

A. Same host numbers.

B. Same IP address.

C. First two bits of the IP address are set to 01

D. Same network prefix.

 

130. A Class C network is defined by a:

A. 16-bit network.

B. 8-bit network.

C. 32-bit network prefix.

D. 24-bit network prefix.

 

131. Public IP address spaces are distributed by which of the following organizations?

A. Network Solutions INC.

B. IANA.

C. IETF.

D. ITU-T.

E. IEEE.

 

132. What characteristic of IP addressing creates a hierarchical network?

A. All hosts on all networks must have unique host numbers.

B. IP addresses identify a host and the network on which it resides.

C. Clients are assigned 32-bit addresses and servers 64-bit addresses.

D. Router, switch and host addresses are drawn from unique address classes

 

133. Which of the following is a private IP network address reserved by the IANA?

A. 169.254.0.0/16

B. 11.0.0.0/8

C. 192.100.0.0/24

D. 172.30.0.0/16

E. 172.0.0.0/16

 

134. Which type of IP address contains the network number and all 1’s for the host address?

A. Broadcast address.

B. Multicast address.

C. Anycast address.

D. Unicast address.

 

135. Complete the following sentence: The introduction of the subnet address added another

A. Layer of hierarchy in the addressing structure.

B. 4,294,967,296 addresses to the IP address space.

C. Class to the classful addressing system.

D. 16-bit number to accompany the IP address

 

136. What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

A. There is no specific bit pattern to identify the network address.

B. A string of 1s

C. A string of 0s

D. A string of alternating 10s

 

137. What is the purpose of the broadcast address?

A. Provides an address to refer to a single device on a given network.

B. Provides an address to refer to a group of devices having the same IP addresses in

different Layer 2 networks.

C. Provides an address that refers to all the devices in a given network.

D. Provides an address to refer to a specific group of devices in a given network.

 

138. Which three of the following are important considerations when designing subnets?
(Choose three.)

A. Number of subnetworks currently required.

B. Type of physical connectivity used by each segment.

C. Future network growth requirements.

D. Number of hosts each subnetwork will support.

E. Class of the network address to be used for the network.

 

139. Network address: 200.12.30.0 Network mask: 255.255.255.0 Use the information above. You
need to create 12 subnetworks supporting 10 host addresses each. Which extended prefix

will meet this requirement?

A. /12

B. /24

C. /26

D. /28

E. /30

 

140. Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?

A. 224.1.2.1/8

B. 192.168.24.59/30

C. 255.255.255.255/32

D. 172.162.24.255/18

 

141. A network administrator is creating a subnet plan for the address 172.16.0.0/16 . The network

must support 459 hosts on each subnet while providing the maximum number of subnets.
What subnet mask should be used?

A. 255.255.128.0

B. 255.255.224.0

C. 255.255.254.0

D. 255.255.0.0

 

142. With a subnet mask of 255255255224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host
addresses? (Choose all that apply)

A. 87.991.215.9

B. 95.112.29.3

C. 172.31.196.3

D. 192.112.58.7

 

143. Given a network address of 1161400, which of the following is a valid host address when
using the subnet mask 255255255240?

A. 116141716

B. 116141731

C. 1161417192

D. 1161417189

 

144. Given the following (Network address: 208.40.224.0, Network prefix: /28.) What is the address range, including the network and broadcast addresses, for the fourth sub-network?

A. 208.40.224.0 208.40.224.255

B. 208.40.4.0 208.40.4.255

C. 208.40.224.16 208.40.224.31

D. 208.40.224.48 208.40.224.63

E. 208.40.227.0 - 208.40.224.255

 

145. Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a /31 prefix?

A. There is no broadcast address on the network.

B. The address can only be used as a loopback address.

C. This specifies a single host address.

D. A /31 prefix is not supported on the SR and ESS platform.

 

146. Which of the following is a characteristic of the system address?

A. A logical address on the router not corresponding to any specific interface.

B. May have any prefix value.

C. A physical interface address.

D. A management IP address.

 

147. Address summarization reduces the routing table size by:

A. Not advertising directly connected routes.

B. Allowing a contiguous block of network addresses to be represented by one network
prefix.

C. Increasing the number of addresses in the routing table.

D. Summarizing addresses in the network into smaller routing tables.

 

148. What is the preference value in the routing table used for?

A. It is used to differentiate local routes from remote routes.

B. It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by different routing
protocols.

C. It indicates the preferred egress interface.

D. It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by the same protocol.

 

149. At what stage in the packet forwarding process is the IP packet header examined?

A. When the router first receives a frame from a LAN.

B After the forwarding table is checked.

C. After the IP datagram is extracted from the L2 frame.

D. Immediately before the IP packet is encapsulated for transmission

 

150. What happens next after an incoming packet is de-encapsulated from the Layer 2 frame in
an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 router?

A. The IP datagram is encapsulated in the appropriate Layer 2 frame by the MDA.

B. The IP datagram passes through the switch fabric to reach the egress IOM.

C. The IP datagram is passed to the IOM.

D. A lookup is performed in the FIB to determine the egress interface.

 

151. Which of the following IP header fields contains information that indicates whether routers
are allowed to fragment a packet?

A. Header checksum.

B. Identification.

C. Flags.

D. Fragmentation offset.

 

152. What is the main purpose of IP fragmentation?

A. To limit the number of the IP addresses in the network.

B. To improve the efficiency of transmissions over the network.

C. To reduce the number of resources required to send a large frame over the network.

D. To allow IP datagrams to be carried over Layer 2 networks with varying MTU sizes.

 

153.  Which of the following is a characteristic of Port Address Translation?

A. Allows a single public IP address to represent multiple private IP addresses
simultaneously.

B. Maps a private address to a well known port number.

C. Resolves a Mac address given a specific IP address.

D. Provides a one to one mapping from a private to a public address.

 

154. Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

A. Once an IP filter is applied it cannot be modified.

B. An IP filter is used to examine an IP packet and its contents.

C. An IP filter is applied to allow or deny IP packets into a network.

D. Multiple ingress and egress filter policies can be applied to a network interface.

 

155.  Which of the following command lines would be found in a list of commands designed to

permit only certain type of traffic from exiting router RTR-A to router RTR-B?

A. RTR-A>config>router>if>egress# filter ip 1

B. RTR-B>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1

C. RTR-A>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1

D. RTR-B>config>router>if>ingress# filter ip 1

 

156. What is the sequence of messages sent by a host when it attempts to ping a destination for
which it has no Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?

A. ICMP echo request, ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo reply.

B. ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply.

C. ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply, ARP request, ARP reply.

D. ICMP echo request, ARP reply, ARP request, ICMP echo reply.

 

157. Which of the following best describes the function of an ARP cache within the same subnet?

A. Used by IP to map an unknown IP address to the known hardware address of the distant
host.

B. Adds only an IP address entry for an unknown device on the same subnet.

C. Transmits ICMP messages to multiple hosts with unknown IP addresses.

D. Resolves the MAC address of a host device given its IP address

 

158. What is the sequence of events for a client to receive an IP address from the server in the
DHCP?

A. Discover, request, offer, acknowledgement.

B. Request, acknowledgement, discover, offer.

C. Discover, offer, request, acknowledgement.

D. Request, offer, discover, acknowledgement.

 

159. Which of the following statements is TRUE about ICMP?

A. ICMP messages can only be generated by routers.

B. ICMP messages are encapsulated within an IP datagram.

C. ICMP guarantees delivery of a message.

D. An IP datagram is encapsulated within an ICMP header.

 

160. What protocol is used by ping to verify IP network reachability?

A. ICMP

B. ARP

C. DCHP

D. NAT

 

161. When a device in an IP network receives an echo request message that is destined for

itself, it then:

A. Estimates the round trip-time.

B. Generates an echo reply.

C. Calculates the data loss statistics.

D. Verifies the data field of the message.

 

162. What ICMP message type will a router use to indicate to a host that an IP datagram sourced
from that host cannot be delivered?

A. Echo Request.

B. Echo Reply.

C. Destination Unreachable.

D. Router redirect

 

163. A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP

network. This describes:

A. IP routing.

B. IP protocol.

C. IP encapsulation.

D. IP tunneling.

 

164. Which field in the IP routing table contains the name or address of the neighbour that
advertised the prefix to the router?

A. Preference.

B. Metric.

C. Dest prefix.

D. Next hop.

 

165. What is the function of the Routing Table Manager?

A. Provide a CLI interface to allow the network operator to install static routes in the routing
table.

B. Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, find the best path to the destination network
and install it in the routing table.

C. Provide a CLI interface to allow the operator to configure the dynamic routing protocol on
the router.

D. Based on the routing protocol preference values, chose the route with the lowest
preference and install it in the routing table.

 

166. Which of the following is characteristic of a static route?

A. Responds in real time to network failures.

B. Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

C. Explicitly defines the next hop based on operator input.

D. Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system

 

167. Which of the following describes a static default route?

A. An entry included in the default configuration of the router that is used if no dynamic
routing protocols or static routes are configured.

B. A wildcard entry used when the destination network is not specifically defined in the
routing table.

C. An entry selected based on the route that has the least cost to the destination (path with
the most physical bandwidth)

D. An entry used by the routing protocol when it is unable to calculate the best route to the
destination.

 

168. Based on the network diagram (click on the exhibit), what is the command to use on R1 to
setup a static route to the network on CR1.

A. config router static-route 19216820/24 next-hop 10232

B. config router static-route 10231 next-hop 19216820

C. config router static-route 19216820/24 next-hop 10231

D. config router static-route 10232 next-hop 19216820

 

169. Based on the network diagram, (click on exhibit) what is the command to use on CR1 to
setup a default static route to R1?

A. config router default-route 10232

B. config router static-route 0000 next-hop 19216820

C. config router static-route 0000 next-hop 10232

D. config router static-route 0000/0 next-hop 10232

E. config router static-route 10232 next-hop 0000/0

 

170. Based on the network diagram (click on exhibit), R2 wants to connect to the networks
behind CR1 using a static-route. What is the correct syntax given the choices below? R1
has a valid static-route defined for networks behind CR1

A. config router static-route 19216820/24 next-hop 10111

B. config router static-route 19216820/24 next-hop 10231

C. config router static-route 19216820/24 next-hop 10112

D. none of the above

E. config router static-route 19216820/24 next-hop 10232

 

171. Based on the network diagram (click on exhibit), Router 1 installs the network D in its
routing table, based on a dynamic routing update from Router 2 Which of the following
describes the information that will be installed in the routing table?

A. 1721690/24 next-hop 1010101

B. Any of the above

C. 1721690/24 next-hop 1010102

D. 172169024 next-hop 1010103

 

172. What are the tasks of the Routing Table Manager (RTM)? Choose two

A. RTM installs its best route in the routing table.

B. RTM selects the best route from among multiple routing protocols.

C. RTM selects the best route using the metric as criteria .

D. RTM sends its best route to all its directly connected neighbors.

 

173.  Choose two true statements that characterize Distance Vector Routing?

A. Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

B. Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

C. Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

D. Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

 

174. What metric does a link state protocol use to choose the best path to a destination network?

A. Link bandwidth.

B. Round trip time.

C. Hop count.

D. Route preference

 

175. You need to implement an interior gateway routing protocol for your network that supports
scalability, fast convergence and VLSM. Which routing protocol would best serve your
needs?

A. RIPv1

B. RIPv2

C. OSPF.

D. BGP.

E. Static routes.

 

176. Which of the parameters in Hello messages exchanged between two OSPF neighbors must
be the same to keep the adjacency alive in OSPF? (Choose four.)

A. Authentication password.

B. Router priority.

C. Hello interval.

D. Area ID.     (Only in the same area ID routers become neighbors)

E. Interface MTU.

F. Dead interval.

 

177. Which of the following are TRUE statements about the router ID in OSPF? Choose two

A. A router ID is not required by OSPF.

B. The system address is used as the router ID if router-id is not set.

C. The router ID is used to uniquely identify every OSPF router.

D. On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, the router ID is set to the highest logical IP address if
router-id is not explicitly set.

 

178. Which of the following are FALSE statements about the OSPF routing protocol? Choose
two.

A. OSPF is a link state protocol with fast convergence.

B. OSPF supports hierarchy with multiple areas.

C. The default metric for OSPF is hop count.

D. OSPF does not support VLSM.

E. OSPF supports neighbor authentication.

 

179. Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events in the forming of an OSPF
adjacency?

A. Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates.

B. Hello exchange, Link state requests and updates, DB descriptor exchange.

C. Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange.

D. DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange.

 

180. In the diagram, R7 receives a new LSA from R3 and installs it in its link state database. 10
ms. later it receives another copy of the LSA with the same sequence number from R8
What does R7 do with the LSA received from R8?

A. R7 silently discards the LSA received from R8

B. R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database and floods a copy to its
neighbors .

C. R7 discards the LSA received from R8 and sends an ACK to R8

D. R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R8 and

floods a copy to its neighbors .

 

181. In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from R7 and then
receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from R1 What does R3 do
with the LSA from R1?

A. R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its
neighbors.

B. R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1

C. R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state
base to R1

D.
R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and
floods a copy to its neighbors.

 

182. In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with sequence number 112 from R7 and installs it in its
link state database. 10 ms. Later it receives a copy of the same LSA with a sequence
number of 111 from R1 What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

A. R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and
floods a copy to its neighbors.

B. R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state
base to R1

C. R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its
neighbors.

D. R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1

 

183. Which of the following best describes an autonomous system?

A. An autonomous system is a loosely defined term that can refer to any organization that
has a connection to the Internet.

B. An autonomous system is a network or group of networks from many organizations
running different IGP routing protocols, but all running BGP.

C. An autonomous system is a network or group of networks operating under one
administrative authority.

D. An autonomous system is another term for the collection of routers that make up the
Internet

 

184. Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a
peering session with other BGP speakers?

A. TCP port 179

B. UDP port 179

C. TCP port 22

D. UDP port 22

 

185. What are some of the characteristics of BGP? Choose three

A. BGP is an exterior gateway protocol.

B. BGP routing is based on distance vector.

C. BGP sends periodic updates to its neighbors.

D. A router running BGP protocol needs an Autonomous system number

 

186. Which is the public AS in the diagram?

 

A. 2002

B. All of the above.

C. 65001

D. None of the above.

E. 65003

 

187. In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 2002?

A. IGP

B. IBGP

C. EBGP

D. EGP

E. BGP can not be run between routers in the same AS.

 

188. In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 65001
and AS 2002?

A. IGP

B. IBGP

C. EBGP

D. EGP

E. BGP can not be run between routers in different ASs.

 

189.  Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the Transport Layer in the
TCP/IP stack?

A. Provides a data transport service for routing and control protocols such as OSPF and
ICMP.

B. Provides a universal address plan to uniquely identify every device in the network.

C. Defines a standard method for framing data for transmission on the physical network
medium.

D. Provides a data transport service to higher protocol layers.

 

190. Which of the following is NOT a function of TCP?

A. Maintaining the ordering of data transmitted across the network.

B. Ensuring the reliable transmission of data across the network.

C. Providing the receiver with a flow control mechanism.

D. Defining the method for routing data across the network.

 

 

191. What must occur before two hosts can exchange data using TCP?

A. The two hosts must negotiate a path MTU to be used for the data exchange.

B. The two hosts must perform a 3-way handshake before transmitting data.

C. Nothing. The two hosts can send data to each other at any time.

D. The two hosts must exchange encryption keys before transmitting data.

 

192. Host A is transmitting data to host B on a TCP connection. What is the purpose of the ACK
sent by host B?

A. The ACK is flow control from host B and tells host A to reduce its transmission rate.

B. The ACK tells the host A that host B wishes to establish a session.

C. The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the segment that was just received by host

B. The ACK tells the host A that host B wishes to establish a session.

D. The ACK tells host A the sequence number of the next segment that host B expects to
see

 

193. Host A receives a TCP SYN/ACK segment. What does this signify?

A. The TCP session has been terminated due to a timeout.

B. A TCP session is now established to host A.

C. Host A has received a request to establish a TCP session.

D. Host A has received a request to close a TCP session

 

194. What is the purpose of the source and destination ports in the TCP header?

A. These ports identify the physical location of the sender and the receiver on the IP router.

B. These ports are used as addresses to communicate with the IP layer.

C. TCP does not use source or destination ports.

D. These ports are used as an address to identify the upper layer application using the TCP
connection.

 

195. Which of the following is NOT a field in a TCP header?

A. MTU.

B. Window size.

C. Sequence number.

D. Source port.

E. Acknowledgement number.

 

196. Which of the following fields is not a field in the TCP header used for the establishment and
termination of a TCP connection?

A. TTL

B. ACK

C. FIN

D. SYN

 

197. The sequence numbers are used by TCP to ensure that the data receive is provided to the
application in the correct order.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

 

198. What happens in a TCP session if a segment is not acknowledged within a certain time
period?

A. The missing segment is retransmitted.

B. The TCP session is terminated.

C. The sender sends the next segment.

D. An ICMP destination unreachable message is sent.

 

199. What is the purpose of TCP flow control?

A. It forces the sender to send only one segment at a time .

B. It allows the receiver to drop segments without the sender having to retransmit.

C. It allows the receiver to control the rate at which the sender transmits data.

D. It restricts the sender from sending too much data when there is congestion in the
network.

 

200. Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate how many segments it can
receive?

A. MTU

B. SYN

C. Destination port.

D. Window size.

E. Checksum

 

201. What must the sender do when it receives a window size of 0 from the receiver?

A. Retransmit the previous segment.

B. Send the next segment.

C. Stop transmitting.

D. Terminate the TCP session.

 

202. Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of UDP (Select two)?

A. Provide a connectionless delivery service.

B. Provide a connection oriented delivery service.

C. Provide an unreliable transmission service.

D. Provide a reliable transmission service.

 

203. Why does UDP have less overhead then TCP?

A. UDP has less overhead then TCP because there is no checksum field in UDP.

B. UDP overhead is the same as TCP because it uses the same fields in the header.

C. UDP has less overhead because it is only used for transmission of small amounts of
data.

D. UDP has less overhead because there is no requirement for acknowledgment or
retransmission.

 

204. Which application below would be likely to use UDP ?

A. Telnet.

B. Real-time audio application such as VoIP.

C. Web browser.

D. Email application

 

205. How does the Transport Layer identify which application is to receive the data?

A. Using Connection Identifier Numbers (CIN).

B. Using port numbers.

C. Using the IP address of the packet.

D. Using the MAC address of the frame.

 

206. What capability of TCP/IP allows two hosts to have multiple TCP sessions to each other
simultaneously?

A. The combination of IP source and destination address and TCP source and destination
port uniquely identifies each session.

B. The combination of IP source and destination address and the IP protocol field uniquely
identifies each session.

C. The hosts can identify the sessions using each others MAC addresses.

D. Two hosts can not have multiple TCP sessions simultaneously.

 

207. What operation is performed by an LSR when it receives an MPLS labeled packet?

A. The LSR refers to its MPLS label table, pops the label and forwards the packet to the
next IP router.

B. The LSR refers to its routing table and forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER
without altering the MPLS label.

C. The LSR refers to its MPLS label table, swaps the label and forwards the packet to the
next LSR or LER.

D. The LSR refers to its MPLS label table forwards the packet to the next LSR or LER

without altering the MPLS label.

 

208. What is the function of an LSR?

A. Label Switching Routers make decisions based on ATM header information.

B. Label Switching Routers make forwarding decisions based on the MPLS label.

C. Label Switching Routers make switching decisions based on the original MAC Header.

D. Label Switching Routers make routing decisions based on the original IP Header

 

209. In an MPLS network, which device is responsible for taking an unlabeled packet and
encapsulating it with an MPLS label?

A. Ingress Label Edge Router.

B. Egress Label Edge Router.

C. Label Switching Router.

D. Next Hop Router.

 

210. Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels (Choose three)?

A. Labels used for a LSP may be static but are usually signaled dynamically with an MPLS
label signaling protocol.

B. Labels used for an LSP must be statically assigned by the service provider.

C. Labels are locally significant to the MPLS router which means its possible for two routers
on the LSP path to use the same label.

D. A series of labels from one LER to another LER represent a logical tunnel known as an
LSP.

E. Labels are globally significant to the MPLS network which means all labels on the LSP
path must be unique.

 

211. Which device is responsible for removing the MPLS label before the packet reaches the CE
device?

A. The egress LER removes the MPLS label.

B. The CE device removes the MPLS label.

C. The last LSR on the LSP removes the MPLS label.

D. MPLS labels are not removed until they reach the final destination.

 

212. Which two protocols are used for the dynamic signaling of MPLS labels (Choose two)?

A. LDP

B. PNNI

C. RSVP-TE

D. CSPF

 

213.  How does LDP select the path used for an LSP?

A. LDP monitors the available bandwidth on all links and signals the LSP based on this

information.

B. LDP uses the shortest hop-count between two endpoints for the LSP.

C. LDP must be configured hop-by-hop by the service provider.

D. LDP follows the path chosen by the IGP.

 

214. A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers MPLS
network?

A. CE always connects to a PE router.

B. CE always connects to a P router.

C. CE always connects to another CE device.

D. The CE does not connect to the service provider network

 

215. Which of the following are accurate statements about the PE device in a service providers
MPLS network? (Select three)

A. A PE router only connects to CE devices.

B. PE routers only support Ethernet interfaces connecting to the CE.

C. PE routers support many different interface types connecting to CE devices.

D. A PE router only connects to P routers.

E. A PE router connects to at least one P router.

F. A PE router connects to at least one CE device.

 

216. Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider’s network?

A. At the edge of the provider’s network facing the customer.

B. At the edge of the customer’s network facing the provider.

C. In the core of the providers network.

D. On the customer premises.

 

217. Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Networks? Choose all that apply.

A. IES

B. VPWS

C. VPLS

D. VPRN

 

218. Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Alcatel-Lucent
7750 SR? Choose two.

A. VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.

B. VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

C. VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D. VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service

E. MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol

 

219.  Which statement best describes a SAP?

A. The Service ATM Point is used for ATM connections to a PE.

B. The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers access to the
service.

C. The Service Access Point is defined on the P device and is the customers access to the
service.

D. The Service Access Point is defined on the CE device and is the customers access to
the service.

 

220. Multiple SAPs may be defined on the same physical port and may be used for different
services.

A. True

B. False

 

221. SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a
port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.

A. True

B. False

 

222. Which statement best describes an SDP?

A. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind
the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

B. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind
the service to CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

C. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to
bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

D. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind
the connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

 

223. Which statement best describes a VPRN service?

A. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched
network administered by the service provider.

B. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed
network administered by the service provider.

C. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access
administered by the service provider.

D. From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of
dark fibers.

 

224. How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different
customers?

A. You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its
customers are all using discrete IP address space.

B. Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to
separate customer routing information This allows for overlapping addresses

C. A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which
are always unique.

D. A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme
administered by the service provider.

 

225. How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different
customers?

A. You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its
customers are all using discrete IP address space.

B. Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to
separate customer routing information This allows for overlapping addresses

C. A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which
are always unique.

D. A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme
administered by the service provider.

 

226. A VPWS service maintains a MAC Forwarding Database (FDB) for Ethernet SAPs.

A. True

B. False

 

227. Which of the following mediums can be used in a VPWS when defining SAPs (Select
three)?

A. ATM.

B. Frame Relay.

C. Token Ring.

D. Ethernet.

 

228. If a customer requires a point-to-point layer 2 VPN service between two locations which
VPN service would be typically suited for this customer?

A. Virtual Private Wire Service  

B. Virtual Private LAN Service.

C. Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D. Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.